National Defence Academy /Naval Academy QUESTION PAPER 2025 (I)

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Directions (Q1-Q5): Each of the following items consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. You are required to select the most appropriate option that sequences the parts correctly.

Question 1

P: participate in the function

Q: many of the people who had come to

R: the auditorium was over-crowded

S: could not find a seat because

(a) PRQS
(b) PQRS
(c) QPSR
(d) SPRQ

Correct Answer: (c) QPSR

Explanation: The correct order begins with “Q” to introduce the subject, i.e., many people who came to the function. “P” follows to explain what they came for, which is to participate in the function. “S” describes the problem, that they couldn’t find a seat, and “R” explains why—due to the overcrowded auditorium. This makes QPSR the correct sequence.

Question 2

P: lay outside her existing life

Q: she knew that the answer

R: somewhere in the back of her mind

S: to her question about life

(a) RPQS
(b) QSPR
(c) QPSR
(d) RQSP

Correct Answer: (b) QSPR

Explanation: The sentence starts with “Q,” where the speaker knows the answer to her questions. “S” follows, asserting that the answer is related to life. “P” then explains that the answer lies outside her existing life, and “R” concludes by specifying that the answer resides in the back of her mind. The correct sequence is QSPR.

Question 3

P: works of literature

Q: inside the pages of all good

R: lies the truth about some of

S: the more challenging question posed by humanity

(a) PRQS
(b) QPRS
(c) QPSR
(d) RPSQ

Correct Answer: (b) QPRS

Explanation: The sentence starts with “Q,” introducing the idea that inside the pages of good literature lies the truth. “P” follows to specify the type of literature being discussed. “R” then explains what the literature reveals—truth about challenging questions posed by humanity, and finally, “S” elaborates on those questions. Therefore, the correct sequence is QPRS.

Question 4

P: takes on account of its economic successes

Q: to address continuing social inequality

R: for every stride of progress any nation

S: it takes two back if it is unable

(a) PRQS
(b) QPRS
(c) RPSQ
(d) RPQS

Correct Answer: (c) RPSQ

Explanation: The sentence begins with “R,” with the mention of a nation making progress, and “P” follows by highlighting the kind of progress—economic success. “S” then explains a setback: two steps back if social inequality isn’t addressed. “Q” concludes with the core issue—addressing ongoing inequality, which logically presents the contrast between progress and setbacks.

Question 5

P: the book value of a loan or

Q: an intangible asset over a set period of time

R: used to periodically lower

S: amortisation is an accounting technique

(a) SRPQ
(b) RSPQ
(c) SRQP
(d) RPSQ

Correct Answer: (a) SRPQ

Explanation: The sentence starts with “S,” defining amortisation as an accounting technique. “R” follows while explaining its purpose—to reduce value over time. “P” then introduces what is being reduced, such as the book-value of a loan, and “Q” completes the idea by adding that it can also apply to intangible assets over a period. Hence, SRPQ is correct.

Directions (Q6-Q10): Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Question 6

There is more than ________ to get the job done.

(a) one way
(b) one ways
(c) any ways
(d) any way

Correct Answer: (a) one way

Explanation: The correct phrase is “more than one way,” a common expression meaning there are multiple solutions or approaches to a problem. It is grammatically correct and idiomatic.

Question 7

The class decided to organise ________.

(a) picnic
(b) a picnic
(c) picnics
(d) the picnic

Correct Answer: (b) a picnic

Explanation: “A picnic” satisfies the requirement because “picnic” is a singular countable noun and requires the indefinite article “a” before it. The class decides to organize a certain picnic.

Question 8

The accused ________ before the judge.

(a) tried
(b) was trial
(c) sat trial
(d) stood trial

Correct Answer: (d) stood trial

Explanation: The phrase “stood trial” is a legal idiom meaning someone faced formal judicial proceedings. “Sat trial” and “was trial” are grammatically incorrect, making “stood trial” the unique fit.

Question 9

The manner in which the demolitions have been carried out ________ scrutiny by the High Court.

(a) was under
(b) under
(c) is under
(d) however under

Correct Answer: (c) is under

Explanation: “Is under scrutiny” is correct in the present tense, showing that the High Court is currently examining the action. The verb “is” properly agrees with the singular subject “manner”.

Question 10

I ________ consider the opinions of all stakeholders before taking a final decision.

(a) will not
(b) have
(c) will
(d) shall

Correct Answer: (d) shall

Explanation: “Shall” is used to express a strong intention or commitment in formal contexts. It exhibits the speaker’s determination to consider everyone’s opinions before deciding.

Directions (Q11-Q20): Identify the most appropriate discourse marker or expression to complete the sentence.

Question 11

________ your transfer request is concerned, we’ll be discussing it at the next meeting.

(a) As far as
(b) To begin
(c) By the way
(d) Talking about

Correct Answer: (a) As far as

Explanation: The phrase “As far as your transfer request is concerned” is a formal way to introduce a topic and narrow down the specific focus of the sentence.

Question 12

________ did you know Ravi has a new job?

(a) For one thing
(b) By the way
(c) In the first place
(d) As a result

Correct Answer: (b) By the way

Explanation: “By the way” introduces a new but slightly off-topic piece of information, bringing up a casual question about Ravi’s new job.

Question 13

________ the wind, it was getting stronger, and I was getting colder.

(a) To begin with
(b) By the way
(c) First of all
(d) Speaking of

Correct Answer: (d) Speaking of

Explanation: “Speaking of” is the correct discourse marker to connect the sentence to a topic currently under discussion or contextually related.

Question 14

________ what are you doing in my room?

(a) On the other hand
(b) Excuse me
(c) Look there
(d) Eventually

Correct Answer: (b) Excuse me

Explanation: “Excuse me” is used here to politely get someone’s attention or interrupt to ask a direct question.

Question 15

________ an unhappy childhood leads to criminal behaviour.

(a) Still if
(b) Even somewhat
(c) In some cases
(d) In progression

Correct Answer: (c) In some cases

Explanation: “In some cases” softens the statement to accurately reflect a generalization that is non-universal rather than an absolute rule.

Question 16

________ the problem is nothing but a wrong assumption about processes.

(a) In the meanwhile
(b) Somewhat
(c) Engagingly
(d) In other words

Correct Answer: (d) In other words

Explanation: “In other words” is utilized to rephrase or clarify a statements to make it more direct or simple.

Question 17

Many, ________ hesitate to publicly broach such questions for fear of nurturing discrimination.

(a) understandably
(b) despite
(c) until
(d) of course

Correct Answer: (a) understandably

Explanation: “Understandably” expresses that hesitation is reasonable or expected given the context of fearing discrimination.

Question 18

________ one notes that in the nineteenth century an important development of reflection and questioning gained momentum.

(a) Particularly speaking
(b) Generally speaking
(c) Otherwise
(d) Of course

Correct Answer: (b) Generally speaking

Explanation: “Generally speaking” fits best as it introduces a broad historical observation covering the nineteenth century.

Question 19

________ the situation has completely transformed over the past few years.

(a) Somewhat
(b) Believably
(c) Thus
(d) Predominantly

Correct Answer: (c) Thus

Explanation: “Thus” is used to mark a logical conclusion or transitional result stemming from earlier developments.

Question 20

________ the committee is of the opinion that all academic matters will be discussed in the Executive Body Meeting.

(a) Hence
(b) But
(c) Later
(d) Although

Correct Answer: (a) Hence

Explanation: “Hence” functions correctly here as a connector showing a formal result or corporate decision based on preceding reasoning.

Directions (Q21-Q25): Identify the correct meaning of the given vocabulary word.

Question 21: Cynosure

(a) Person or thing that causes a change.
(b) Person or thing that attracts a lot of attention.
(c) Person or thing regarded as exact copy.
(d) Person or animal that lives in a particular place.

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: “Cynosure” refers to someone or something that is the center of admiration or attention, rooted historically in the Greek term for the guiding North Star.

Question 22: Coeval

(a) Person of roughly the same age.
(b) Person or organisation that cooperates with others.
(c) Person employed to drive a private car.
(d) Person employed in taking.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: “Coeval” means a person or object that existed during the same generation or historical period.

Question 23: Retrogression

(a) Sudden sharp drop in price.
(b) Reverse pressure.
(c) Return to earlier state.
(d) Sudden occurrence of a past event.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: “Retrogression” refers to moving backward into a less developed, primitive, or worse state.

Question 24: Imprest

(a) Surprise attack by people.
(b) Money used to manage small expense.
(c) Sudden occurrence of laughter.
(d) Sudden increase in activity.

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: An “imprest” fund is a fixed cash advance utilized specifically for handling minor, routine operational expenses.

Question 25: Turgid

(a) Determined or loyal.
(b) Dirty or untidy.
(c) Swollen or distended.
(d) Excited or upset.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: “Turgid” primarily means swollen or congested, usually with fluid.

Directions (Q26-Q30): Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

Question 26

The Constitution of India ensures proportionate representation from all regions.

(a) balanced
(b) partial
(c) unlikely
(d) suffragette

Correct Answer: (b) partial

Explanation: “Proportionate” means corresponding in relative size or share. Contextually, “partial” is chosen as it relates to sharing a defined portion.

Question 27

There is a feeling of disenchantment among the members of the group.

(a) delight
(b) disappointment
(c) idealism
(d) unrelenting

Correct Answer: (b) disappointment

Explanation: “Disenchantment” refers to a state of disillusionment or loss of positive illusion, aligning directly with “disappointment”.

Question 28

She believed that it was imminent that he would be chosen as the leader of the group.

(a) timely
(b) distant
(c) unlikely
(d) inevitable

Correct Answer: (d) inevitable

Explanation: “Imminent” specifies an event that is close at hand and certain to happen, making “inevitable” the closest match.

Question 29

The brave soldiers left an indelible impression on the people of the land.

(a) permanent
(b) fleeting
(c) hilarious
(d) eradicable

Correct Answer: (a) permanent

Explanation: An “indelible” mark is one that cannot be washed out, forgotten, or removed, making “permanent” the direct synonym.

Question 30

The manager always provides instantaneous replies to all queries.

(a) immediate
(b) delayed
(c) deliberate
(d) unwanted

Correct Answer: (a) immediate

Explanation: “Instantaneous” indicates occurring without any noticeable delay, translating accurately to “immediate”.

Directions (Q31-Q35): Find the proper sequence of the middle four sentences (P, Q, R, S) to form a coherent passage between S1 and S6.

Question 31

S1: Although all sources of energy ultimately come from natural processes, non-renewable resources cannot be replaced naturally at the rate they are being used.

P: This will increases the time and cost of mining and once these resources are used up they cannot be replaced.

Q: Hence, we must remember that though our country is rich in mineral deposits, these resources are short-lived.

R: Extraction of these ores through the process of mining will soon become difficult and very expensive because these minerals have to be mined from greater depth over time.

S: Mineral resources can be said to be finite and non-renewable.

S6: The sustainable use of natural resources in a manner that provides the maximum benefit of these resources to humans over a period of time can be termed as conservation.

(a) QPRS
(b) SPQR
(c) SQRP
(d) SQPR

Correct Answer: (c) SQRP

Explanation: S1 opens with non-renewable resource traits. Sentence S defines mineral assets within this finite group. Q introduces their short-lived span. R establishes deep mining difficulties, which flows directly into P concerning escalating structural extraction costs before concluding with S6.

Question 32

S1: India, at present, has one of the largest road networks in the world.

P: The importance of roads has been recognised in India since the ancient times.

Q: The Grand Trunk Road was built by Sher Shah Suri across the Indo-Gangetic plain, from Chittagong (Bangladesh) to Peshawar (Pakistan).

R: Kings such as Ashoka and Chandragupta built roads for easy transportation of goods and people.

S: Construction of roads continued as an important activity in the late medieval period.

S6: It passes through Howrah, Delhi and Amritsar and terminates in Kabul (Afghanistan).

(a) QPRS
(b) SPQR
(c) PQRS
(d) PRSQ

Correct Answer: (d) PRSQ

Explanation: This follows a clear chronological historical timeline. P touches on ancient road systems. R qualifies this by naming ancient rulers (Ashoka and Chandragupta). S shifts forward into the late medieval era, setting up Q to name Sher Shah Suri’s GT Road, which links directly to the routing details in S6.

Question 33

S1: National highways connect one state with another and are of national importance.

P: They are important because, whereas they constitute merely two per cent of the total road networks, yet they carry 40 per cent of the total road traffic.

Q: The road infrastructure of the country is therefore crucial, and their construction and maintenance is of critical importance.

R: They bear the load of traffic because these roads connect long distance and pass through major cities and towns.

S: Since they cover the length and breadth of the nation and connect cities and towns, these highways are the primary facilitators of trade and connectivity.

S6: These road systems are also known as primary road systems and are laid and operated under the supervision of the National Highways Authority of India.

(a) PRSQ
(b) SPQR
(c) PRQS
(d) SQRS

Correct Answer: (a) PRSQ

Explanation: S1 highlights national highway significance. P brings up the 40% high-traffic data point. R justifies why they hold this massive load. S transitions into their macroeconomic function, and Q summarizes why infrastructural structural maintenance becomes imperative before concluding with S6.

Question 34

S1: The South African Constitution was inaugurated in December 1996.

P: Its creation and promulgation took place at a time when South Africa still faced the threat of a civil war after the dissolution of the Apartheid Government.

Q: The South African Constitution says that its “Bill of Rights is a cornerstone of democracy in South Africa”.

R: Apropos, it forbids discrimination on the grounds of “race, gender, pregnancy, marital status, ethnic or social origin, colour, age, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth”.

S: The Bill of Rights grants perhaps the most extensive range of rights to the citizens.

S6: A special constitutional court enforces the rights enshrined in the Constitution.

(a) QSRP
(b) SPQR
(c) PQRS
(d) PQSR

Correct Answer: (d) PQSR

Explanation: S1 outlines the constitution’s birth timeline. P offers historical context regarding post-apartheid tensions. Q introduces the core theme of the Bill of Rights. S highlights its extensive scale, and R delivers specific parameters of its anti-discrimination rules, blending perfectly into the judicial framework of S6.

Question 35

S1: Our Constitution reminds us of the necessity of representation in a large democracy.

P: This is why election become important.

Q: Therefore, representatives are elected by the people.

R: Whenever we think of India as a democracy, our mind invariably turns to our successful election.

S: All citizens cannot participate in taking every decision.

S6: Elections have today become the most visible symbol of the democratic process.

(a) QSRP
(b) SPQR
(c) PQSR
(d) SQPR

Correct Answer: (d) SQPR

Explanation: S1 opens the discussion on representation. S reveals the practical structural obstacle—that every individual cannot participate in every decision. Q resolves this by bringing up elected representatives. P links this representation model directly to why elections matter, and R roots the dynamic inside India’s democratic system.

Directions (Q36-Q38): Convert the speech format based on standard grammar rules.

Question 36

Convert from direct speech to indirect speech:
Charu said to her friend, “I want you to be here at 6:00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting.”

(a) Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6:00 p.m. the next day for the meeting.
(b) Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6:00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting.
(c) Charu requested her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6:00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting.
(d) Charu told her friend that she will want her to be here at 6:00 p.m. the next day for the meeting.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: During reported speech modifications, the simple present “want” backs into the simple past “wanted,” the localized adverb “here” shifts to “there,” and the future marker “tomorrow” transforms into “the next day”.

Question 37

Convert from direct speech to indirect speech:
Nitin said to his brother, “What a beautiful painting it is!”

(a) Nitin wondered to his brother that what a beautiful painting it was.
(b) Nitin wondered before his brother that it was a beautiful painting.
(c) Nitin exclaimed that it is a beautiful painting.
(d) Nitin asked his brother whether it was beautiful painting.

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: The reporting structure shifts to “wondered before,” converting the exclamatory style into a clean assertive layout while changing the present tense “is” to the past form “was”.

Question 38

Convert from indirect speech to direct speech:
The teacher asked her students why they had been quiet in the previous class.

(a) The teacher asked her students, “Why were they keeping quiet in the previous class?”
(b) The teacher said to her students, “Why were you quiet in the previous class?”
(c) The teacher said to her students, “Why had you been quiet in the previous class?”
(d) The teacher said to her students, “Why were you quiet in previous class?”

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Reverting to direct speech transforms the past perfect “had been quiet” back into the original simple past interrogative “Why were you quiet” while retaining the correct direct address format.

Directions (Q39-Q40): Identify the grammatically correct sentence structure.

Question 39

(a) He is considered as the brightest intellectual in the country.
(b) He is considered as one among the brightest intellectual in the country.
(c) He is considered as one among the brighter intellectual in the country.
(d) He is considered as one of the intellectual in the country.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: Option (a) cleanly presents the superlative claim. The other options suffer from syntax errors or broken plural agreements (e.g., using “one of the” followed mistakenly by a singular noun).

Question 40

(a) No other mountain is taller than the Himalayas.
(b) No other mountain is tall than the Himalayas.
(c) No other mountains taller than the Himalayas.
(d) No other mountain is taller then the Himalayas.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: This utilizes the correct comparative pattern “taller than” while avoiding spelling mistakes such as mixing up the comparative “than” with the sequential token “then”.

Directions (Q41-Q45): Select the option that accurately outlines the definitions of both given terms.

Question 41: Confident and Confidant

(a) Confident means certain and confidant means close friend.
(b) Confidant means certain and confident means close friend.
(c) Confident means belief and confidant means an emissary.
(d) Confident means assurance and confidant means intimate person.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: “Confident” is an adjective reflecting personal self-assurance or certainty. “Confidant” is a noun describing an intimate, trusted companion with whom secrets are shared.

Question 42: Broke and Brook

(a) Broke means abundance and brook means a flowing water body.
(b) Broke means bankrupt and brook means a stream.
(c) Broke means fractured and brook means nonsense.
(d) Broke means negotiate and brook means a stream.

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: “Broke” signifies running entirely out of money (bankrupt), whereas “brook” indicates a small, natural running freshwater stream.

Question 43: Accept and Except

(a) Accept means apart from and expect means recognise.
(b) Accept means recognise and except means include.
(c) Accept means consent and except means apart from.
(d) Accept means allude and except means apart form.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: “Accept” means to receive something with explicit consent, while “except” indicates an exclusion, translating to “apart from”.

Question 44: Accord and Accrued

(a) Accord means collected and accrued means agreement.
(b) Accord means agreement and accrued means arrived.
(c) Accord means accepted and accrued means received.
(d) Accord means agreement and accrued means accumulated.

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: “Accord” denotes formal harmony or institutional agreement between parties. “Accrued” highlights something accumulated or gathered over elapsed time.

Question 45: Guarantee and Warranty

(a) Guarantee is an agreement and warranty is a service contract.
(b) Guarantee is a business agreement and warranty is a service contract.
(c) Guarantee is a promise and warranty is a service contract.
(d) Guarantee is acceptance and warranty is a service contract.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: A “guarantee” acts as a general assurance or promise regarding quality, whereas a “warranty” denotes a specific formal written service contract defining repair options.

Directions (Q46-Q50): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions based solely on the provided text.
“An attempt to determine the number of languages in the world is affected by other factors. A new language do continue to be discovered even these days, as unexplored regions of the world begin to be opened up. The discovery does not usually take place straight away. Often there are similarities with an already known language which makes the investigators assume that what they have found is just a dialect of that language. Only after a considerable period of contact does it transpire that the speech is so different that it has to be considered a different language. It takes a language survey to establish the facts, and there are still many countries where such surveys are incomplete or have not even begun. The people may be known, but the identity of their language may not be. Because many such people are bilingual or multilingual, and converse with outsides in lingua franca, it may take a while before linguists come to realise that the there is an ethnic language there at all.”

Question 46

Which one of the following is NOT the reason for the difficulty in estimating the number of languages of the world?

(a) New language continue to be discovered.
(b) There are still unexplored regions.
(c) New language are considered a dialect of a known language.
(d) People who speak the language do not claim their language.

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: While parameters (a), (b), and (c) are explicitly cited in the text, the passage never claims that native populations refuse to claim their tongue.

Question 47

Which one of the following is a way to establish the discovery of a new language?

(a) By establishing contact over a period of time with speakers of the language.
(b) By finding the similarities of the language with other languages.
(c) By comparing with the lingua franca of the region.
(d) By conducting a survey of all languages of the region.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: The text declares that validation transpires “only after a considerable period of contact,” which reveals unique language values.

Question 48

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Language surveys have been conducted by all nations.
(b) There is hardly any language to be discovered in the world.
(c) All the languages are either complete language or dialects of other major languages.
(d) No new language needs to be discovered since all languages are known to the world.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: The passage highlights that undocumented tongues are routinely misclassified or assumed to be subordinate local dialects before researchers differentiate them.

Question 49

“The people may be known, but the identity of their language may not be”, means ________

(a) People are recognised as different ethnic group but not necessarily their language.
(b) People are recognised as different ethnic group and their language is recognised.
(c) People are not recognised as different ethnic group, and so are their languages.
(d) Because the people are not from different ethnic groups and their language is recognised.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: This signifies that while a specific community’s presence is registered, their unique linguistic identity remains undocumented or unverified.

Question 50

Which one of the following words from the passage means ‘come to be known’?

(a) transpire
(b) lingua franca
(c) straight
(d) variant

Correct Answer: (a) transpire

Explanation: In the text, the verb “transpire” is used in the sense of a reality gradually becoming clear, revealed, or coming to light over time.

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